MS 201 Questions and Answers
Question. 1
Which sub process of Capacity Management focuses on the IT Infrastructure that is used to support provision?
a) Business Capacity Management
b) Component Capacity Management
c) Service Capacity Management
d) All of the above
Question. 2
The information security policy should include all of the following policies EXCEPT
a) A charging policy
b) A record retention policy
c) A E-mail policy
d) An asset disposal policy
Question. 3
What is the purpose of Service Design?
a) To define the perspective, position, plans, and patterns that a service provider needs to execute to meet an organization’s business outcomes
b) To ensure that new, modified, or retired services meet the expectations of the business as documented in the service strategy and service design stages of the lifecycle
c) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers
d) To plan out the services, governing practices, processes and policies required to realize the service provider’s strategy and to facilitate the introduction of services into supported environments
Question. 4
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the Service Asset and Configuration Management (SCAM) process?
a) To determine the most appropriate release-unit level for each asset or component
b) To ensure that accurate and reliable information about assets is available when and where it is needed
c) To include details of how assets have been configured and the relationships between assets
d) To ensure that the assets required to deliver services are properly controlled
Question. 5
Which statement about IT Operations Management is CORRECT?
a) It is responsible for ensuring that business and IT services provider strategies and plans are closely aligned
b) It is responsible for performing the daily activities needed to manage IT services and the supporting IT infrastructure
c) It is responsible for managing risks that could seriously impact IT services
d) It is responsible for allowing users to make use of IT services, data or other assets
Question. 6
Which statement about the scope of Access Management is CORRECT?
a) It involves the implementation of the policies from Information Security Management
b) It is applied to any facet of service management that needs to be closely managed and that can be automated
c) It allows users to make use of IT services, data, or other assets
d) It ensures that access to services is available at the times that were agreed upon
Question. 7
Which stages of the ITIL framework represent the revolving lifecycle stages of the lifecycle hub-and-spoke design?
a) Service Design, Service Transition and Continual Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, and Service Operation
Question. 8
Which aspect of service design is reviewed to make sure that existing roles and responsibilities have the ability to support a new service?
a) Design of Service Solutions
b) Design of management information system and tools
c) Design of required processes
d) Design of measurement methods and metrics
Question. 9
Your organization is in the process of developing multi-level service agreements. Which of the following is NOT a layer within a multi-layer service level agreement?
a) Customer Level
b) Corporate Level
c) Service Level
d) Strategic Level
Question. 10
Which of the following is an example of the management information systems and tools aspect of Service Design?
a) Customer and User Satisfaction Survey
b) Service Catalogue
c) Financial Information and Budgets
d) Service Level Agreements
Question. 11
Which aspect of Availability is a measure of how long an IT service can perform its agreed function without interruption?
a) Maintainability
b) Reliability
c) Availability
d) Serviceability
Question. 12
Which of the following is the BEST description of a service?
a) A structured collection of activities that are intended to achieve a specific goal
b) A way of delivering value to customers by helping to bring about results customers want to accomplish without owning the specific costs and risks
c) Any capability or resource used by a service provider to provide utility and warranty to a customer
d) Any capability or resource used by a customer to accomplish a business result
Question. 13
Which of the following resource can be used to indicate a breach to a service level target?
a) Authority Matrix
b) RACI Matrix
c) Pareto Chart
d) Service Level Agreement Monitoring (SLAM) chart
Question. 14
Which type of service change is BEST described as a pre-authorized change that is low risk, relatively common, and follows a procedure or work instruction?
a) Standard Change
b) Minor Change
c) Normal Change
d) Emergency Change
Question. 15
Which design feature for vital business functions (VBF) refers to an approach used to provide maximum availability of an IT service?
a) Fault Tolerance
b) Continuous Availability
c) High Availability
d) Continuous Operation
Question. 16
Which of the following is a major Service Design aspect?
a) Strategies and Strategic Plans
b) Request for Changes (RFCs) to resolve operational issues
c) Management Information System and Tools
d) Service Level Agreements (SLA)
Question. 17
Which of the following Service Design aspects specifically include the Service Catalogue?
a) Design of Technology and Management Architectures
b) Design of Measurement Methods and Metrics
c) Design of Management Information System and Tools
d) Design of Service Solutions
Question. 18
Which of the following activities are included in IT Operations Management?
a) Access Management and IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM)
b) Application Service Provider (ASP) and Facilities Management
c) IT Service Management (ITSM) and Release and Deployment Management
d) IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
Question. 19
Which of the following BEST describes an alert?
a) A design flaw or malfunction that causes a failure of one or more IT services or other configuration items (CIs)
b) A notification that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred
c) An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service
d) A change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service or other configuration item (CI)
Question. 20
Which of the following is responsible for negotiating agreements between the service provider and customer, as well as ensuring that these agreements are met?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Agreement (SLA)
c) Demand Management
d) Service Level Management (SLM)
Question. 21
Which of the following is the BEST description of a function?
a) A team or group of people and the tools they use to carry out one or more processes or activities
b) A structured set of activities designed to accomplish a specific objective
c) A temporary organization, with people and other assets required to achieve an objective or other outcome
d) A connection or interaction between the IT service provider and the business
Question. 22
Which of the following is one of the five major Service Design aspects?
a) Measurement Methods and Metrics
b) Standard Operating Procedures
c) Vital Business Function
d) Shared Service Unit
Question. 23
What do the four P’s of Service Design represent?
a) People, Process, Principles and Profit
b) People, Process, Products, and Projects
c) People, Process, Products and Partners
d) People, Process, Principles and Partners
Question. 24
What is the purpose of Service Operation?
a) To ensure that new, modified, or retired services meet the expectations of the business as documented in the service strategy and service design stages of the lifecycle
b) To plan out the services, governing practices, processes, and policies required to realize the service provider’s strategy and to facilitate the introduction of services into supported environments
c) To define the perspective, position, plans, and patterns that a service provider needs to execute to meet an organization’s business outcomes
d) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers
Question. 25
Which of the following is used to manage the lifecycle of a single change?
a) Request for Change (RFC)
b) Standard Change
c) Change Model
d) Change Record
Question. 26
Which of the following does NOT describe Application Management?
a) It helps to decide if an application will be bought or built
b) It is the software that provides functions that are required by an IT service
c) Any department, group or team that is involved in managing and supporting operational applications can execute this function
d) It is the function that is responsible for managing applications throughout their lifecycle
Question. 27
Which of the following aspects of Service Management would be included in the scope of Event Management?
a) Configuration items (CIs)
b) Environmental conditions
c) Security
d) All of the above
Question. 28
Which of the following is an interface with Incident Management from the Service Design stage of the Service lifecycle?
a) Service Level Management (SLM)
b) Access Management
c) Problem Management
d) Change Management
Question. 29
What is the purpose of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?
a) To ensure that new, modified or retired services meet the expectations of the business as documented in the Service Strategy and Service Design stages of the lifecycle
b) To plan out the services, governing practices, processes and policies required to realize the service provider’s strategy and to facilitate the introduction of service into supported environments
c) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers
d) To ensure that IT services are aligned with changing business needs by identifying and implementing enhancements to IT services that support business processes
Question. 30
Which of the following statements about Serviceability is CORRECT?
a) Customers require Service Level Agreements (SLAs) containing reliability targets
b) Maintainability is the primary service target within SLAs for the business and customers availability
c) Reliability and Maintainability targets within Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) should refer to the end-to-end service
d) All of the above
Question. 31
Which of the following is MOST strategically focused on achieving service levels?
a) IT Operations Management
b) Release and Deployment Management
c) Business Relationship Management
d) Service Level Management (SLM)
Question. 32
Which type of external stakeholder of an IT service provider is the person or group who defines and agrees to the service level targets?
a) Suppliers
b) Customers
c) Vendor
d) Users
Question. 33
Which of the following is a value that is a result of implementing good Service Transition?
a) Reduced frequency and duration of service outages
b) Allows the service provider to promptly and effectively respond to changes in the business environment
c) Improved quality of service
d) Improved control of service assets and configurations
Question. 34
Service desks can be structured in many ways. How would a Centralized Service Desk be described?
a) Several Service Desks merged into a single location
b) A Service Desk that gives the impression that it is a single centralized Service Desk, but in fact the personnel are scattered or located in any number (or type) of geographical locations
c) A Service Desk that includes two or more geographically dispersed Service Desks and provides 24-hour follow-the-sun service
d) A Service Desk that is co-located within, or that is physically located to, the users it serves
Question. 35
Which step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) approach involves implementing IT Service Management (ITSM) processes?
a) Where are we now?
b) How do we get there?
c) Where do we want to be?
d) How do we keep the momentum going?
Question. 36
What can Service Automation improve?
a) Accounting and Agreement
b) Environment and Partnership
c) Input and Output
d) Utility and Warranty
Question. 37
Which of the following is a responsibility of the process practitioner?
a) Creating or updating records to prove that activities have been carried out correctly
b) Supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT Services
c) Managing the lifecycle of all incidents
d) Appointing people to the required roles
Question. 38
Which statements about the Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) are CORRECT?
a) Configuration data is stored in the configuration Management Database (CMDB), which is fed through the Configuration Management System (CMS) to the SKMS.
b) The CMS is part of the SKMS
c) The SKMS provides support for making informed decision and delivering services
d) All of the above
Question. 39
Which of the following is the purpose of Change Management?
a) To ensure that changes are documented and analyzed.
b) To make effective use of overall risk by accepting potentially beneficial risks
c) To ensure that requests for change align with the business needs of the service
d) To ensure beneficial changes to be made with minimum disruption to IT Services
Question. 40
Which of the following is NOT an output of Service Level Management (SLM)?
a) Service Improvement Plan (SIP)
b) Update to Request for Changes (RFCs)
c) Up-to-date Service Portfolio
d) Updated requirements for Underpinning Contracts
Question. 41
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of value as created through Services?
a) Value is defined by the Service Provider
b) Affordable mix of features
c) Value changes over time and circumstance
d) Achievement of objectives
Question. 42
Which of the following contains details of current and historic usage of IT Service and Components and also includes scenarios predicting business demands?
a) Configuration Management System
b) Capacity Plan
c) Configuration Baseline
d) Charter
Question. 43
Which of the following is defined as the underlying cause of one of more unplanned interruptions to an IT Service?
a) Incident
b) Workaround
c) Problem
d) Event
Question. 44
What is the MAIN responsibility of the Service Owner?
a) Communicate process information or changes as appropriate to ensure awareness
b) Define all aspects of an IT Service and its requirements throughout each stage of its lifecycle
c) Provide the overall management of all IT Services
d) Deliver a specific IT Service
Question. 45
Which of the following is the BEST description of IT Service Management?
a) The implementation and Management of quality IT Services that meet the needs of the business
b) An approach that emphasizes the importance of coordination and control across the various functions, processes and systems necessary to manage the full lifecycle of IT Services
c) The framework of policy, processes, standards, guidelines and tools that ensures an organization can achieve its Information Security Management objectives
d) A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of Services
Question. 46
Which of the following describes the “R” in RACI?
a) The person or people responsible for getting the job done
b) The person who controls quality and the end results
c) The people who are sought after for information and advice
d) People who are kept up to date on progress
Question. 47
Continual Service Improvement (CSI) uses various types of metrics to support its activities. Which type of metric is frequently associated with application-based metrics?
a) Process metrics
b) Technology metrics
c) Service metrics
d) Improvement metrics
Question. 48
Which of the following is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment process?
a) To provide users with information on service availability and the required steps to obtain them
b) To manage the lifecycle of all Service Requests from users
c) To allow users to make use of IT Services, data or other assets
d) To ensure that normal service operation is restored as quickly and the business impact is minimized
Question. 49
As a category, Event are of ____________types
a) Exception
b) Informational
c) Informational and exceptions
d) None of the above
Question. 50
In event notification, a device is interrogated by a management tool, which collects certain targeted data. This is called polling
a) True
b) False
Question. 51
Significance of the events can be categorized as:
a) Informational
b) Warning
c) Exception
d) All of the above
Question. 52
For your Event Management to be effective, it should be designed during:
a) Service Strategy
b) Service Design
c) Service Operation
d) Service Transition
Question. 53
Failed CI cannot be called as incident if service performance does not degrade
a) True
b) False
Question. 54
Incidents can be logged by
a) Technical Staff
b) User
c) Service Desk
d) All of the above
Question. 55
Focus of Incident Management is on
a) Permanent resolution
b) Find the cause and fix it
c) Restore ASAP (AS early As Possible)
d) Make necessary changes in infrastructure
Question. 56
Incident Management team is exempted to follow Change Management process because they are supposed to fix the reported issues and in the process of fixing the issues, they are required to make necessary changes
a) True
b) False
Question. 57
Urgency, Severity, Impact and Priority is related as
a) Urgency = Priority X Impact
b) Priority = Urgency X Impact
c) Severity = Impact X Priority
d) All are incorrect
Question. 58
Category in Incident management and category in Problem Management should be
a) Can be different
b) Doesn’t matter
c) Same
d) They are independent
Question. 59
Primary interface with Request fulfillment process is as below
a) Service Desk – Incident – Problem and Change
b) Incident – Problem – Change and Release
c) Incident – Capacity – Availability and Service Level Management (SLM)
d) Incident – Release and Configuration Management
Question. 60
Challenges faced by Request Fulfillment process come from which combination
a) People and Process
b) Process and Technology
c) People and Technology
d) None of the above
Question. 61
As per ITIL, a ‘problem’ is defined as the case of one or more incidents
a) True
b) False
Question. 62
Two major processes for Problem Management are
a) Error Control and Problem Control
b) Reactive and Proactive
c) Error Control and Proactive
d) Problem Control and Reactive
Question. 63
Known Error database should be owned by
a) Configuration Management as part of CMDB
b) Knowledge Management as part of SKMS
c) Problem Management
d) Should be owned by Tools group or KM team
Question. 64
In Service Transition phase, Problem Management interacts with
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Release and Deployment Management
d) All of the above
Question. 65
In Service Design, Problem Management deals with
a) Supplier Management
b) Transition Planning and Support
c) Security Management
d) Capacity Management
Question. 66
Access Management process is subset of the Availability Management process, whose objective is to ensure that all those authorized should have access to the documents and information:
a) True
b) False
Question. 67
Service Operations team is accountable to find CI discrepancies while working on day to day basis
a) True
b) False
Question. 68
Service Operations team is supposed to update the CI status and details based on
a) Operations Manager’s approval
b) Configuration Manager’s approval
c) Incident Manager’s approval
d) Operations Management function
Question. 69
Monitoring is performed by Service Operations teams, involved processes are:
a) Supplier – Service Level Management (SLM) – Service Reporting
b) Event – Capacity – Availability
c) SLM – Incident – Problem
d) Change – Validation – Release
Question. 70
Technical Management function has two responsibilities
a) Build technical knowledge and deploy resources to support ITSM lifecycle
b) Custodian of technical knowledge and owners of technically competent resource pool
c) Custodian of technical knowledge and deploy resources to support ITSM lifecycle
d) None of the above
Question. 71
Discovery tools are used to
a) Discover issues in the service line
b) Populate and verify the CMS data and to assist in license management
c) Discuss CI attributes of all the CI not live in the network
d) Establish and / or confirm the scope of the service landscape
Question. 72
Critical Success factors of Service Operations are
a) Management Support
b) Business Support
c) Staffing Support
d) All of the above
Question. 73
Effectiveness and Efficiency is the driver in every facet of the service operations, which of the following statement is true – 1. A measure of whether the objective has been achieved is called effectiveness, 2. A measure of whether right amount of resources has been used to deliver an output is called efficiency
a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
b) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
c) Statement 1 is correct
d) Statement 2 is correct
Question. 74
Failure of a Configuration Item not resulting in disruption of service is also called as an incident
a) True
b) False
Question. 75
Knowledge Base and Known Error Database is same
a) True
b) False
Question. 76
Which of the statements are wrong:
a) MTBF = Mean time Between Failures
b) MTTR = Mean time to Repair
c) MTTR = Mean time to Restore Service
d) MTBSI = Mean time Between System Incidents
Question. 77
Writing of an equal amount of an asset’s value each year, usually a fixed percentage of cost, is known as …….
a) Transfer cost
b) Discounted cash flow
c) Net Book Value
d) Depreciating
Question. 78
Utility and Warranty can be explained as Increases performance average and Reduces performance variation
a) True
b) False
Question. 79
Utility is explained as
a) It increases gain and it reduces pain
b) It increases gain or it reduces pain
c) It creates a balance between gain and pain
d) None of the above statement is correct explanation
Question. 80
Four P’s of Service Strategy are
a) Perspective – Positions – Plan and Pattern
b) Product – Price – Position and Perception
c) Product – Plan – Price and Position
d) Perspective – Perception – Position and Price
Question. 81
Financial Management is responsible for
a) Budgeting
b) Accounting
c) Charging
d) All of the above
Question. 82
Analyzing Pattern of Business Activity is responsibility of
a) Demand Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Capacity Management
Question. 83
Service Portfolio categorizes the risk in to following categories
a) Grow the business
b) Run the business
c) Transform the business
d) All of the Above
Question. 84
Outcome of existing Service Portfolio analysis leads to
a) Retain and Replace
b) Rationalize and Refactor
c) Renew and Retire
d) All of the Above
Question. 85
Service Portfolio is sum of
a) Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
b) Service Design and Service Strategy
c) Service Catalogue and Service Design
d) None of the above
Question. 86
Which of the following statements about the Service Owner is INCORRECT?
a) Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
b) Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they own
c) Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes which support the service they own
d) Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
Question. 87
Demand Management is about
a) Understanding the Pattern of Business Activity (PBA)
b) Influencing demand
c) Both of them
d) None of the above
Question. 88
Continual Service Improvement expect all Service Managers to identify and differentiate between two basic role:
a) Productions Vs Operations
b) Productions Vs Project
c) Operations Vs Project
d) None of the above
Question. 89
Core Objective of Service Improvement should be:
a) Increasing Efficiency
b) Maximizing Effectiveness
c) Optimizing cost of services and underlying ITSM process
d) All the above
Question. 90
Improvement cannot be achieved without clear and unambiguous accountabilities
a) True
b) False
Question. 91
In Continual Service Improvement (CSI), Deming cycle is critical at following points
a) Implementation of CSI
b) Application of CSI to services and service management process
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Question. 92
Your measurement framework should address following as, basic reason to monitor and measure
a) Validate, direct, intervene and justify
b) Verify, improve, review and update
c) Review, improve, verify and validate
d) Validate, review, improve and measure
Question. 93
ITIL is compliant to following ISO models:
a) ISO20000
b) ISO27000
c) ISO19770
d) None of the above
Question. 94
To Support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities, organization needs to collect following types of metrics
a) Technology, Process and Service
b) People, Process and Technology
c) People, Process and Partner
d) Service, Technology and People
Question. 95
Service Reporting is responsibility of
a) Service Reporting Process
b) Service Level Management
c) Both of the above
d) None
Question. 96
What are various cost involved in Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation
a) Labor Cost and expertise cost
b) Tooling cost and training cost
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Question. 97
Which of the following do Technology Metrics measure?
a) Components
b) Processes
c) The end to end service
d) Customer Satisfaction
Question. 98
Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
a) Processes and functions
b) Maturity and cost
c) The end to end service
d) Infrastructure availability
Question. 99
Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model?
a) Devise a strategy; Design the Solution; Transition into Production; Operate the Solution; Continually Improve
b) Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
c) Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
d) What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Question. 100
An organization has undertaken the first two steps in the 7-Step Improvement Process, and has found a large gap between what it believes it SHOULD measure, and what it IS ABLE TO measure. The organization is in the process of drafting SLAs. What is the BEST way of dealing with this limited measurement capability in the short to medium term?
a) SLAs should include targets based on what should be measured; Monitoring capabilities will then be gradually enhanced to allow the necessary monitoring and reporting to be introduced
b) Work on the SLAs should be suspended until adequate monitoring capabilities are available to support the required targets
c) SLAs should include targets based on what can currently be measured; SLA targets should be gradually enhanced as increased monitoring capability becomes available
d) Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) and UCs should be examined, and targets should be included in the SLA to match those in the OLAs/UCs
Question. 101
An important beginning point for highlighting Continual Service Improvement is perform:
a) Baseline
b) Process Audit
c) Process Assessment
d) Statistical Analysis
Question. 102
Continual Service Improvement is expected to identify faults or weaknesses in which of the following Lifecycle phases?
a) All phases of the Service Lifecycle
b) All phases of the Lifecycle, except Service Strategy
c) All phases of the Lifecycle, except CSI
d) Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation only
Question. 103
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
a) To ensure the impact of changes are better understood
b) To ensure standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of changes
c) To ensure that all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS)
d) To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users
Question. 104
Identify the processes covered as part of Service Transition?
a) Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management
b) Change Management, Capacity Management, Event Management, Service Request Management
c) Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management, Request Fulfillment
Question. 105
Most important activity of Change Management is
a) Change Impact Assessment
b) Deploying Change
c) Managing CI during change process
d) Managing Known error
Question. 106
What are various types of change
a) Strategic Change
b) Tactical Change
c) Operational Change
d) All of the above
Question. 107
MTRS is defined as
a) Mean time to restore service
b) Mean time to resolve service
c) Maximum time to resolve service
d) Maximum time to restore service
Question. 108
Success of Change Management is measured during
a) During post release review after success of release
b) During post implementation review
c) During Change impact assessment
d) Customer Satisfaction Survey
Question. 109
Ideally Change and Release Management should not be handled by same person
a) As they need to work very closely
b) Release Management is subset of Change Management
c) As there is conflict of interest
d) Both the processes can be handled by same person
Question. 110
Change Impact Assessment is done based on
a) Technical Impact Assessment
b) Business Impact Assessment
c) Financial impact assessment
d) All of the above
Question. 111
Key activities in Service Asset and Configuration Management process is
a) Planning – Identification – Control – Status Accounting – Verification and Audit
b) Plan – Inform – Control –Account – Verify
c) Prepare – Identify – Control – Status Accounting – Validation and Verification
d) Planning – Identification – Control – Status Accounting – Validation and Verification
Question. 112
Which statement correctly describes the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management?
a) Asset Management only deals with what is owned; Configuration Management deals with everything in the infrastructure
b) Asset Management is a superset of Configuration Management because it includes non-IT assets such as chairs and tables
c) Asset Management deals with the financial aspects of Configuration Items (CIs); Configuration Management only deals with the technical details of the infrastructure
d) Configuration Management goes much further than Asset Management because it also specifies the relationships between assets
Question. 113
Which of the following is NOT a part of the Release Process?
a) Moving software from the DML to the Development Environment
b) Moving software from the DML to the Live Environment
c) Moving software from the development to the Test Environment
d) Moving software from the live environment to the DML
Question. 114
Items of Information stored in the CMDB relating to a specific CI are known as?
a) Components
b) Features
c) Attributes
d) Characteristics
Question. 115
Which process is accountable to manage DML and definitive spares
a) SACM
b) SPM
c) SLM
d) CSI
Question. 116
DML is foundation for
a) Release Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Change Management
d) Problem Management
Question. 117
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a) The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base
b) The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System
c) The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
d) The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database
Question. 118
In ITIL service lifecycle configuration levels and baseline points are represented by
a) Numbered Triangles
b) Sequenced square
c) 7 step improvement model
d) DMAIC methodology
Question. 119
To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration information on the historical, planned and current state of the services and infrastructure is objective of
a) SACM
b) SLM
c) CSI
d) Change Management
Question. 120
Various release and deployment approach can be explained as
a) Big bang vs Phased
b) Push and pull
c) Automated vs manual
d) All of the above
Question. 121
Release Window is same as Change Window
a) True
b) False
Question. 122
Release planning starts as soon as
a) Change is logged
b) Change is approved
c) Release management receives specific input to start the release planning
d) When all the required CI is available
Question. 123
Back-out plan is built and approved by
a) Release Management
b) Change Management
c) Both of them
d) None of them
Question. 124
The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component and its associated documentation is a definition of what?
a) A Service Change
b) A Release request
c) A Change Request
d) A Configuration Control
Question. 125
Release Management should update KEDB for all error which is released during deployment
a) True
b) False
Question. 126
Service Validation and testing process is responsible for
a) Validation and testing of new or changed services
b) Validation and testing of existing services
c) Validation and testing of all CI
d) Validation and testing of release unit
Question. 127
Transition management is all about
a) Communication management
b) Stakeholder management
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Question. 128
Transition is defined as a change in state, corresponding to a movement of an IT service or other configuration item from lifecycle to another
a) True
b) False
Question. 129
It is important for the operation of a given application that the version of the software installed on each of the computers on the network is the same. Which process is responsible for this?
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Network Management
d) Release Management
Question. 130
Which of the following is a value that is a result of implementing best practices for Service Operation?
a) Meet the goals of the organization’s security policy
b) Improved quality of Service
c) Makes sure that IT Services stay aligned to business requirements
d) Improved control of Service Assets and Configurations
Question. 131
Which Service Design aspect would benefit the MOST by using a RACI model?
a) Design of Service Transitions
b) Design of measurement methods and metrics
c) Design of Technology and Management Architectures
d) Design of process required
Question. 132
Which statement about Business Relationship Management (BRM) is NOT correct?
a) The purpose of BRM is to identify the customer’s needs including Warranty and Utility
b) One of the purposes of BRM is to negotiate warranty terms with the customer
c) BRM focuses on the Services provided to the customer
d) BRM uses Customer Satisfaction as the primary measure of Successfully delivering the Service or Services
Question. 133
Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for which supplementary emergency measures must be taken?
a) Problem Management
b) Availability Management
c) Capacity Management
d) IT Service Continuity Management
Question. 134
What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a Request for Change?
a) Impact
b) Urgency
c) Priority
d) Content
Question. 135
Which of the following best describes ‘Reliability’?
a) The ability of a CI to remain functional under given conditions
b) The ability of a CI to be retained in, or restored to, an operational state
c) The combination of confidentiality, integrity and maintainability
d) The ability of a service to remain functional even though some components have failed
Question. 136
Which of the following lists best describes the key attributes needed by Service Desk Staff?
a) Logical; Methodical; Tenacious; Forthright; Analytical
b) Well Presented; Technical Specialist; Numerate; Good Interpersonal Skills
c) Business Aware; Articulate; Methodical; Tolerant; Good Interpersonal Skills
d) Good Interpersonal Skills; Tenacious; Technically Astute; Firm
Question. 137
What is the use of additional technical expertise in the Incident Management process called?
a) Incident Classification
b) Problem Analysis
c) Functional Escalation
d) Resolution and recovery of the incident
Question. 138
Consider the following statements: 1. A service level agreement is a written agreement between the service provider and the customers. 2. Negotiation of service levels must involve the customers of the services involved 3. Underpinning contracts must be capable of supporting targets agreed in SLA’s. Which of the above are correct?
a) 1 & 3 only
b) None
c) All
d) 1 & 2 only
Question. 139
The name given to the document which outlines the responsibilities between internal functional areas with respect to assisting in the provision of an IT Service to the Customer/s is?
a) Underpinning Contract
b) Service Level Agreement
c) Operational Level Agreement
d) Service Level Requirements
Question. 140
Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of a Configuration Item?
a) Availability Manager
b) Incident Manager
c) Problem Manager
d) Service Level Manager
Question. 141
The Ishikawa Diagram or Cause & Effect Analysis (Fishbone) is a technique employed by which ITIL Discipline?
a) Capacity Management
b) Incident Management
c) Availability Management
d) Problem Management
Question. 142
Typically a Help Desk, Service Desk & Call Centre all provide the same level of service. They are just different names referring to the single point of contact
a) True
b) False
Question. 143
Which of the following is the BEST description of remediation?
a) Defines repeatable way of dealing with a particular category of change
b) Supports the assessment, prioritization, authorization and scheduling of changes
c) Involves the actions taken to recover after a failed change or release
d) Specifies a regular, agreed time when changes or releases may be implemented with minimal impact on services
Question. 144
Which of the following influences the scope of the initial Service Design?
a) Functional Requirements
b) Overall Design Constraints
c) Business Benefits
d) All of the above
Question. 145
Which of the following BEST describes an outcome?
a) A means of delivering value to customers by facilitating the results customers want to achieve without the ownership of specific costs and risks
b) Something that is measured and reported to help manage a process, IT Service or activity
c) A measure of what is achieved or delivered by a system, person, team, process or IT Service
d) The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT Service
Question. 146
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Portfolio Management (SPM)?
a) Providing a clear service provision model that conveys how service assets are used to supply services
b) To record and trace each of the service’s investment throughout the Service Lifecycle
c) To study the viability of the current services and determine when they need to be retired
d) To control the services offered to its customers
Question. 147
Which of the following statements about Service Automation is CORRECT?
a) It negatively affects the classification of elements such as Configuration Items (CIs) and incidents
b) It prevents IT service information from being updated in the Service Catalogue.
c) It is used to improve the RACI model
d) It is known to improve the Utility and Warranty of services
Question. 148
Which type of metric is used by Continual Service Improvement (CSI) and tracks the performance of end-to-end services?
a) Improvement Metrics
b) Service Metrics
c) Process Metrics
d) Technology Metrics
Question. 149
Ensuring that policies and strategy are actually implemented is an example of which of the following?
a) Governance
b) Business case
c) Confidentiality
d) Control perspective
Question. 150
Which of the following is NOT a value that is a result of implementing best practices for Continual Service Improvement?
a) Improved control of Service Assets and Configurations
b) Steady and ongoing improvements in service quality
c) Recognized opportunities to increase the value of organizational structures and capabilities
d) Ensures that IT services stay aligned to the requirements of the business
Question. 151
Which of the following terms means an unplanned interruption to an IT Service reduction in the quality of an IT Service
a) Change
b) Incident
c) Impact
d) Problem
Question. 152
Which of the following is the BEST description of Service Management?
a) A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
b) An approach that emphasizes the importance of coordination and control across the various functions, processes and systems necessary to manage the full lifecycle of IT Services
c) The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need
d) An assurance that a product or service will meet the agreed requirements
Question. 153
What is the responsibility of Application Management?
a) Manage information about IT infrastructure available on a network and corresponding user access rights
b) Provide IT Services using applications running at the service provider’s premises
c) Administer applications throughout their lifecycle
d) Track and report the value and ownership of assets throughout their lifecycle
Question. 154
Who usually chairs the Change Advisory Board (CAB)?
a) IT Service Continuity Management (ITSM) staff
b) Business Relationship Manager (BRM)
c) Problem Manager
d) Change Manager
Question. 155
Which of the following is used as a reference point for later comparison in the Continual Service Improvement stage of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Asset
b) Baseline
c) Build
d) Configuration Item (CI)
Question. 156
Which Service Design aspect considers Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) to help ensure that the efficiency, effectiveness and cost effectiveness of IT Services are all managed?
a) Technology and Management Architectures.
b) Processes required
c) Measurement methods and metrics
d) Service Solutions
Question. 157
Which function is responsible for providing technical skills in support of IT Services and Management of the IT infrastructure?
a) Technical Management
b) Service Management
c) Business Service Management
d) Service Level Management
Question. 158
Which of the following is the single point of contact for IT users on a day-by-day basis?
a) Service Desk
b) IT Operations
c) Process Manager
d) Incident Manager
Question. 159
Which of the following items need to be documented in a Pattern of Business Activity (PBA) profile?
a) Marketing plans, Attributes, Requirements and Sales Forecasts
b) Business Plans Classification, Sales Forecasts and Service Asset Requirements
c) Classification, Attributes, Requirements and Service Asset Requirements
d) Marketing Forecasts, Business Plans, Production Plans and new Product Launch Plans
Question. 160
Which of the following determines the effect that a loss of service would have on a business and when (during a given time period) the loss of service is most harmful?
a) Business Capacity Management
b) Business Case
c) Business Perspective
d) Business Impact Analysis
Question. 161
Which of the following statements about the process owner is CORRECT?
a) Is a part responsible for supplying goods or service that are required to deliver IT Services
b) Is responsible for ensuring that a process is fit for purpose
c) Is responsible for operational management of a process
d) Is a process that is responsible for managing the lifecycle of all Incidents
Question. 162
Which of the following is a responsibility of the process practitioner?
a) Managing the lifecycle of all incidents
b) Creating or updating records to prove that activities have been carried out correctly
c) Supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT Services
d) Appointing people to the required roles
Question. 163
Which of the following is responsible for keeping accurate information for the organization’s services in transition to a live environment?
a) Availability Management
b) Asset Management
c) Service Level Management (SLM)
d) Service Catalogue Management
Question. 164
To what does the term Standard Change refer?
a) A pre-authorized change that is low risk, relatively common and follows a procedure or work instruction
b) A change that has to be applied as soon as possible
c) A change that follows the defined steps of the Change Management process
d) The addition, modification or removal of anything that could have an effect on IT Services
Question. 165
In the context of service operations managing day to day activities, which of the following statement is true – 1. Functions are logical concept covering people and technology to perform tasks from a defined process on an ongoing basis, 2. Departments are the formal organization formed to perform task from predefined process on an ongoing basis
a) Statement 1 is correct
b) Statement 2 is correct
c) Statements 1 and 2 are correct
d) Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
Question. 166
Building stable service operations with good balance between internal and external focus required a long term planning. The balance referred in statement refers to
a) Stability Vs Responsiveness
b) Internal Vs External
c) Demand Vs Supply
d) Top down Vs bottoms up
Question. 167
Service Operation tries to create balance between
a) Cost Vs Quality
b) Reactive Vs Proactive
c) Internal Vs External Focus
d) All of the above
Question. 168
In an organization, the purchasing department has relocated internally – not just the people, but also their IT resources. A Service Desk employee has been commissioned to relocate this department’s workstations. In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a role?
a) Configuration Management
b) Problem Management
c) Change Management
d) Incident Management
Question. 169
Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include distributing information to users?
a) Change Management
b) Customer Relationship Management
c) Incident Management
d) Service Desk
Question. 170
Which statement best describes the role of the Service Desk?
a) The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems
b) The Service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer
c) The Service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned
d) The Service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available
Question. 171
Which activity in the Problem Management process is responsible for generating Requests for Change (RFCs)?
a) Problem Analysis
b) Error Control
c) Proactive Problem Management
d) Monitoring
Question. 172
What does Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) mean?
a) Average downtime of a service
b) Average uptime of a service
c) Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period
d) Average time between two consecutive incidents
Question. 173
Where are the statuses of changes recorded?
a) in the Known Error database
b) in the Definitive Software Library (DSL)
c) in the Change database
d) in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
Question. 174
What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?
a) Replacement Request
b) Request for Change
c) Service Request
d) Request for Release
Question. 175
Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a meeting of the Change Advisory Board (CAB)?
a) Reports from Service Level Management
b) Ongoing or concluded Changes
c) The registration of Changes
d) The wishes of customers to implement Changes
Question. 176
Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the cost agreements for extra support of the Service Desk?
a) Service Level Management
b) Incident Management
c) Availability Management
d) Financial Management for IT Services
Question. 177
For which of the following activities of Configuration Management are audits regularly implemented?
a) Status monitoring
b) Planning
c) Identification
d) Verification
Question. 178
Release Management has distributed a defective Release. As a result, monthly invoicing has come to a standstill. This has very radical consequences for the business and has been reported as an incident. According to ITIL best practices, what should happen next?
a) Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PIR)
b) Service Level Management will start a Service Improvement Program (SIP)
c) Problem Management will submit a Request for Change (RFC)
d) Release Management will implement the back-out plan
Question. 179
According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly in order to ensure good performance. Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps?
a) Check – Plan – Act – Do
b) Act – Check – Do – Plan
c) Do – Plan – Check – Act
d) Plan – Do – Check – Act
Question. 180
The Deming quality circle is a model for control based on quality. Which step in this model must be taken first?
a) Adjustment
b) Implementation
c) Planning
d) Measurement
Question. 181
Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. What information is this?
a) RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
b) RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
c) Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
d) RFCs resulting from Known Errors
Question. 182
Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified?
a) Incident
b) Known Error
c) Request for Change (RFC)
d) Work-around
Question. 183
What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the same characteristics?
a) Service Call
b) Problem
c) Change Request
d) Known Error
Question. 184
What is the first step when registering an incident?
a) Perform matching
b) Assign an incident number
c) Determine the priority
d) Record the incident data
Question. 185
Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category for a change?
a) The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc
b) The sequence in which the change is made
c) The speed with which the change is made
d) The Request for Change number that the change is assigned
Question. 186
Which data, for a new Configuration item (CI), is recorded in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
a) The Request for Change number for the Configuration Item
b) Repairs to the Configuration Item
c) The impact of the Configuration Item
d) The relationship to other Configuration Items
Question. 187
When is a Known Error identified?
a) When the incident has been sent to Problem Management
b) When the problem is known
c) When the problem has been resolved
d) When the cause of the problem is known
Question. 188
User reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user’s PC replaced within three hours?
a) Availability Management
b) Change Management
c) Service Level Management
d) Configuration Management
Question. 189
Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures?
a) Capacity Management
b) Service Desk
c) Problem Management
d) IT Service Continuity Management
Question. 190
Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
a) The costs and expected revenue of the services offered
b) The technological developments that can affect the services offered
c) The quality, expressed in quantity and costs, of the services offered
d) The company strategy
Question. 191
In the Service Level Management Process, what happens during the activity called “monitoring”?
a) Guarding agreements with the customer
b) Acquiring customers
c) Identifying the needs of customers
d) Guarding negotiations with the customer
Question. 192
Consider the following statements- 1: An SLA is a contract drawn up by the IT department which states what the customer may and may not do with his computer, 2: A Service Catalogue describes concisely and specifically the IT services that the IT department can offer a customer. Which of these statements is correct?
a) Both
b) Neither
c) Only the first
d) Only the second
Question. 193
Consider the following statements- 1: A change in the IT infrastructure is always the result of a change of a Service Level, 2: A Service Level Agreement (SLA) exhibits many similarities to a procedure for drawing up a Request for Change (RFC). Are these statements correct?
a) Both
b) Neither
c) Only the first
d) Only the second
Question. 194
The performance of the network in a large computer centre is monitored 24 hours a day. This produces data for which processes?
a) Change Management, Financial Management and Service Level Management
b) Financial Management, Service Desk and Problem Management
c) Availability Management, Capacity Management and Change Management
d) Availability Management, Capacity Management and Problem Management
Question. 195
When can the building, testing and implementation of a change begin?
a) If it is urgent, as soon as the Request for Change has been classified
b) As soon as there is a back-out plan for the change
c) As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change Advisory Board
d) As soon as the Request for Change has been formally authorized
Question. 196
Which of the concepts below belongs to IT Service Continuity Management?
a) Maintainability
b) Resilience
c) Vulnerability
d) Serviceability
Question. 197
A major change to an existing service is to be designed and built and the issue of what Configuration Management is responsible for has been raised. For which of the following activities does Configuration Management NOT have a responsibility?
a) Controlling the completeness and correctness of all data about the software modules
b) Naming and recording data about software modules
c) Quality assurance of the software modules
d) Registering and monitoring the status of the software modules
Question. 198
When must a Post Implementation Review take place?
a) In case of emergency changes
b) If another incident of the same type occurs again after a Change has been made
c) After every Change
d) At the request of the person who submitted the Change request
Question. 199
Which activity is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management?
a) Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities
b) Testing back-out arrangements
c) Drawing up back-out scenarios
d) Analyzing risks
Question. 200
When is a back-out plan invoked?
a) When it is found that something went wrong when implementing a Change
b) When it is found that something went wrong when testing a Change
c) When it is found that something went wrong when building a Change
d) When it is found that something went wrong when scheduling resources
Question. 201
The management of ABC Inc. has insisted that each request for a new workstation installation be handled with optimum efficiency and effectiveness. Which ITIL process is designed to achieve this desired outcome?
a) Change Management
b) Customer Liaison
c) Problem Management
d) Service Level Management
Question. 202
Which of the examples below is NOT an example of a configuration item?
a) A user manual
b) A company’s organization chart
c) A systems update procedure
d) A unique identification code
Question. 203
Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors?
a) Availability Management
b) Problem Management
c) Security Management
d) IT Service Continuity Management
Question. 204
Nitin calls the Service Desk and reports that the system is slow. He asks whether he can be given another PC like his colleague’s, which is much faster. Which term is applicable to this situation?
a) Problem
b) Incident
c) Request for Change
d) Classification
Question. 205
The cash registers in a supermarket experience network disruptions daily between 4 p.m. and 6 p.m. Which ITIL process is responsible for solving these difficulties on a structural basis?
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Incident Management
d) Problem Management
Question. 206
Which of the following describes the basic concept of Integrity in the Security Management process?
a) The capacity to verify the correctness of the data
b) The correctness of the data
c) Protection of the data against unauthorized access and use
d) Access to the data at any moment
Question. 207
What is meant by the ‘Urgency’ of an incident?
a) The degree to which the incident gives rise to a deviation from the normal service level
b) The time needed by IT Services to resolve the incident
c) The relative importance of the incidents when handling them
d) The degree to which the solution of an incident tolerates delay
Question. 208
What is the key activity of processes defined in Service Strategy
a) How robust business cases will be created to secure strategic investment in service assets and service management capabilities
b) What services are running
c) How to measure and develop SLA’s
d) None of the above
Question. 209
Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL?
a) That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services
b) That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently
c) That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster
d) That it is finally possible to charge for IT services
Question. 210
An organization plans on implementing a new network operating system. Before the actual implementation takes place, the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is discussed. Under whose leadership is this discussion held?
a) The Service Level Manager
b) The Network Manager
c) The Change Manager
d) The Service Manager
Question. 211
The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organization resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
a) Business Impact Analysis
b) Component Failure Impact Analysis
c) Root Cause Analysis
d) Service Outage Analysis
Question. 212
The data in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) can only be modified after permission is granted to modify the infrastructure. Which process grants such permission?
a) Incident Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Change Management
d) Configuration Management
Question. 213
Your Network Department has made an agreement with an external organization in order to fulfill an agreement with its internal customer. Where would the agreement with the external organization be specified?
a) Service Level Requirement (SLR)
b) Underpinning Contract (UC)
c) Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
d) Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Question. 214
What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management?
a) Asset Management deals with the financial aspects of Configuration Items
b) Configuration Management goes much further than Asset Management, because it also specifies the relations between the assets
c) Asset Management only deals with what you own; Configuration Management deals with everything in your infrastructure
d) Asset Management is a superset of Configuration Management, as it includes non-it assets such as chairs and tables
Question. 215
The Service Level Manager requires confirmation that the internal Service Desk can answer Customer calls within 10 seconds. In which document might the Service Desk’s agreement to this requirement be recorded?
a) Internal Specification Sheet
b) Operational Level Agreement
c) Service Level Agreement
d) An underpinning third party contract
Question. 216
The sequence of dealing with problems must be based on…
a) The category to which the problem belongs
b) The impact of the problem
c) The priority of the problem
d) The urgency of the problem
Question. 217
Release management staff do not carry out ;
a) The planning of rollouts of hardware and software
b) The distribution of software applications to remote locations
c) The testing of software to eradicate errors
d) The release and implementation of software into the live environment
Question. 218
Which of the following statements about the Service Catalogue is correct?
a) It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA
b) It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
c) It can be used instead of an SLA
d) It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization
1.Which of the following statement/s is/are correct
a) SLAs should define roles responsibilities on both sides of the agreement
b) SLAs should be regularly monitored and reports should be produced and circulated
c) Underpinning contracts should be reviewed before SLAs are signed
d) All of the above
ans – All of the above
2. Engagements of type ____________do not qualify for Managed Services life cycle
a) L1 and L2
b) L2 and L3
c) L3 and L4
d) L1 and L4
ans L1 and L4
3. Output of transition closure is _____
a) Transition Plan
b) Estimation Summary
c) Lessons Learnt Document
d) None of the above
ans: c) Lessons Learnt Document
4.Which is the key report that helps the organization foresee potential risks
a) Daily dashboard
b) Service Management Plan (SMP)
c) Service Improvement Plan (SIP)
d) None of the above
ans: b) Service Management Plan (SMP)
5.Finalization of Transition plan and its sign-off from customer happens in
a) Transition Initiation Phase
b) Transition Planning Phase
c) Knowledge Acquisition Phase (KAP)
d) None of the above
ans: b) Transition Planning Phase
6. Taking ownership of low priority tickets and verifying whether they met SLA or not is an activity of _____________.
a) Knowledge Acquisition Phase
b) Secondary Support Phase
c) Primary Support Phase
d) None of the above
ans: b) Secondary Support Phase
Which documents form the key list of documents form a Service Management process perspective?
a) Service Catalogue
b) Training need identification
c) Resource Plan
d) All of the above
ans: Service Catalogue
7. _____ and _____ project classification codes are used for steady state projects in managed services
a) IT and IA
b) IT and MI
c) IA and MA
d) MA and MI
ans: d) MA and MI
8. As per IT Service Continuity Procedure, Disaster Recovery (DR) drills should be conducted _____________
a) At least once a year
b) Twice a year
c) Not required
d) None of the above
ans: d) None of the above
9. Engagements of type L3 can typically follow
a) Development Life Cycle
b) Maintenance Life Cycle
c) Any valid life cycle as per its scope
d) Managed Service Life Cycle
ans: Managed Service Life Cycle
10. The typical triggers for revision/change in Service Management Plan are _____________
a) Changes to scope or Change in service model
b) Updates in Veloci-Q (QMS
c) Internal and/or External audit findings
d) All of the above
ans: d) All of the above
11. What information does CMDB contain for Configuration Items (CIs
a) Attributes
b) State
c) Relation
d) All of the above
ans: d) All of the above
Wipro partners with customer to define business and IT transformational initiatives in ______________ type of engagement
a) L1 – Staff Augmentation
b) L2 – Co Managed
c) L3 – Wipro Managed
d) L4 – Consulting
ans: d) L4 – Consulting
12. Transition is divided into several tracks for better management and efficient delivery. __________ is one of tracks of Transition
a) Sales Track
b) Vendor Track
c) Process Track
d) All of the above
Ans –c) Process Track
13. Which process is responsible for Risk assessment and mitigation plan?
a) IT Service Continuity Management
b) Change Management
c) Service Level Management
d) Availability Management
Ans- c) Service Level Management
14. Estimation happens in
a) Proposal Preparation
b) Change management
c) Pre-sales activities
d) Lead qualification
Ans- c) Pre-sales activities
15. What should immediately follow after an RFC is implemented
a) Change record
b) Post Implementation review
c) Impact analysis
d) Change review
Ans- a) Change record
_____ and _____ project classification codes are used for transition projects in managed services
a) IT and MI
b) IA and MA
c) IT and IA
d) MA and MI
Ans- c) IT and IA
16. Which of the following mandatory documents are required to be maintained in the standard template
a) Service Management Plan (SMP
b) ITSM Process Scoping and SLA-KPI Document
c) Service Description Document and Service Delivery Review Report
d) All of the above
Ans- All of the above
17. All T&M engagements can’t be considered as Managed Services
a) True
b) False
Ans- a) True
18. Prevailing managed services execution framework recommends sign-off of SLA-KPI document with customer
a) True
b) False
Ans- a) True
19. Post Implementation Review (PIR) is a must after every Change implementation
a) True
b) False
Ans- a) True
20. Removal of service is not considered as change in scope of engagement
a) True
b) False
Ans- b) False
21. Draft Execution Process Document is one of the Work items/ Outputs of Primary Support phase
a) True
b) False
Ans- b) False
22. Contractually signed metrics and its operational definition are captured in ____________
a) SLA – KPI
b) Risk Management Plan (FMEA)
c) Service Delivery Description (SDD
d) None of the above
ans: a) SLA – KPI
23. Customer feedback and complaints is considered trigger for service Improvements
a)True
b)False
ans :True
24. Activity of reverse transition are
a)Reverse Transition Plan and acceptance criteria sign-off
b)Knowledge transfer and execution as per plan
c)Proper termination of contract meeting legal and compliance requirement.
d)All of the above
Ans – All of the above.
25. is considered one of the service improvement themes
a)Average handling Time(AHT) reduction
b)CSAT improvement
c)Ticket Backlog reduction
d)All of the above
Ans- All of the above.
26. Is the type of engagement where wipro owns responsibility or accountability for portion of work within ambit of larger roadmap or team managed by customer
a)L1-staff augmentation
b)L2-co managed
c)L3-wipro managed
d)L4-Consulting
ans- L2-co managed
27. Is considered trigger for Service Improvements
a)Customer and Business Objectives
b)external and internal assessment
c)service reviews
d)All of the above.
Ans- d)All of the above.
28. Transition sequence is an output of ____________Phase
a)Due Diligence
b)Transition
c)Steady state
d)Reverse Transition
ans – a)Due Diligence
29. which of the following is a valid billing type in SAP/Cpro for a program in Wipro a)Profit sharing b)Element base pricing c)Time and Material d)None of the above
ans- d)None of the above
project classification codes in OWBS denotes infrastructure transition in Managed services
a)IT
b)IA
c)MA
d)MI
Ans – a)IT
30. Reverse Transition is to be carried out___________
a)When the customer decides to start a new Data centre on its Own. b) When the customer decides to add new application/elements to the existing portfolio
c) When the customer decides to get services from a different vendor or its internal IT department. d)When the customer and Wipro decide to work towards a new acquisition.
Ans- a)When the customer decides to start a new Data centre on its Own.
31. The focus of Reverse Transition Is
a)Minimum Disruption to business
b)Completion within specified timelines
c)Compliance to agreed terms and conditions of exit
d)All of the above
Ans – c)Compliance to agreed terms and conditions of exit
32. according to managed services execution life cycle , termination of contract/SoW typically happens in
a)Due Diligence
b)Reverse Transition
c)Transition
d)None of the above
Ans – b)Reverse Transition
33. creation of draft version of Execution Process Document is one of the activities____ phase
a)Transition Initiation
b)Transition Planning
c)Knowledge Acquisition
d)None of the above
ANs – c)Knowledge Acquisition
34. Outcome based agreements typically includes
a)SLA
b)OLA
c)Underpinning Contracts (UC)
d)All of the above
ANs – d)All of the above
35. In a managed service programme , a typical risk management plan should include risk/s due to ______
a)Business and Delivery
b)Process and Technical
c)Contract
d)All of the above
Ans – d)All of the above
36. Transition has Multiple tracks. They are__________
a)Technology Track
b)Process Track
c)People track
d)All of the above
Ans – d)All of the above
37. Objective of Quality Audit Is___________ a)To compute tickets audited to total ticket closed b)Tickets meeting process requirement c)To Measure, Monitor and control process adherence by support engineer d)Tickets meeting overall process adherence
Ans – c)To Measure, Monitor and control process adherence by support engineer
38. Delivery handover is gating between due diligence and Transition
a)True
b)False
Ans – b)False
39. Service Level agreement is between an IT service Provider and another part of the same organization
a)True
b)False
Ans – a)False
40. Change in Service Level Target or change in any parameter of agreed SLA is a qualified trigger for change management process
a)True
b)False
Ans – True
*************************************************************************************
One of the important activity of Reverse Transition is _______________
a) Have sign-off on acceptance criteria for completion
b) Record a Risk Log and maintain the Risk tracker diligently
c) Update Service Management Plan and Execution Process Document
d) None of the above
Ans : a) Have sign-off on acceptance criteria for completion
Proper termination of contract meeting legal and compliance requirement is an activity of _________________
a) Due Diligence
b) Transition
c) Steady State
d) Reverse Transition
Ans :Reverse Transition
Which of the following can trigger Continual Service Improvement activity ? a) Take ownership of low priority tickets & check whether they meet agreed SLA b) BCP requirements for delivery centers
c) Raise proactive requests for procuring laptops, data cards, mobile phones as per the requirement d) Arriving at corrective and preventive action plans Ans : c) Raise proactive requests for procuring laptops, data cards, mobile phones as per the requirement.
Pulse survey happens __________
a) Monthly
b) Annually
c) Half yearly
d) Quarterly
Ans : d) Quarterly
__________________ is typically carried out at the customer’s premises and is facilitated by a questionnaire that is used to specify the information to be gathered regarding the applications or infrastructure or both
a) Due Diligence
b) Reverse Transition
c) Steady State
d) None of the above
Ans – Due Diligence
An engagement where Wipro owns end to end responsibility and accountability with contractually committed service level objectives and targets, other performance metrics and accountability for associated risks is called _____________.
a) L1 – Staff Augmentation
b) L2 – Co Managed
c) L3 – Wipro Managed
d) L4 – Consulting
Ans- c) L3 – Wipro Managed
As per Wipro’s managed services execution lifecycle, Sign off of first baseline Execution Process Document (EPD) with customer typically happens in ___________
a) Transition Initiation Phase
b) Transition Closure Phase
c) Secondary Support Phase
d) Primary Support Phase
Ans – c) Secondary Support Phase
_________________ is one of the tracks of Transition
a) Delivery Track
b) Execution Track
c) Technology Track
d) All of the above
Ans- c) Technology Track
Managed Services Daily Dashboard records which of following data
a) SLA performance
b) Operational issues
c) Complaints and Escalations
d) All of the above
ans- a) SLA performance
__________ provides information about SLA performance, trend of tickets, suppliers’ performance, internal metrics a) Service Delivery Description (SDD b) System Maintenance Technical Document (SMTD) c) Service Delivery Report (SDR) d) None of the above
Ans- d) None of the above
First draft version of Service Management Plan is an output of ______________ Phase
a) Transition Planning
b) Secondary Support
c) Transition Initiation
d) Knowledge Acquisition
Ans- d) Knowledge Acquisition
________________ is a phase where Wipro team shadows the incumbent or customer team on the floor
a) Transition Initiation
b) Transition Planning
c) Knowledge Acquisition
d) Secondary Support
Ans- d) Secondary Support
The Master Transition Plan should be mutually agreed and signed off with the client
a) True
b) False
Ans- a) True
A change in location including STPI to SEZ is considered as change in scope of engagement
a) True
b) False
Ans – a) True
As per prevailing process, Pulse Survey is conducted every six months
a) True
b) False
Ans- b) False
Engagement sign off is given in
a)Secondary support phase
b)primary support phase
c)Knowledge Acquisition phase (KAP)
d)None of the above
ans: d)None of the above
Tickets with______ priorities or severities should be considered while choosing the sample for ticket audit.
a)1
b)2
c)3 and 4
d)All of the above
ans: All of the above
Which of the following documents should be reviewed periodically/ at regular intervals a)Service management plan (SMP) b)Service level Agreement and Risk Assessment Document c)Training plan d)All of the above
ans: All of the above
Which of the following document is recommended for sign off with customer as per prevailing managed services execution life cycle?
a)Execution process document (EPD)
b)System maintenance Technical Document (SMTD)
c)SLA-KPI document
d)All of the above
ans: All of the above
Document that contains Wipro’s service offering and related information is
a)System maintenance technical Document (SMTD)
b)Execution Process Document (EPD)
c)Service Catalogue
d)Master Service Agreement (MSA)
ans: Service Catalogue
“Gap plug out” is a deliverable of which phase of managed services execution life cycle?
a)Reverse Transition
b)Due Diligence
c)Transition
d)None of the above
ans: Due Diligence
EPD stands for
a)Execution process document
b)Execution primary document
c)Exellent primary delivery
d)Execution process delivered
ans:Execution process document
A service catalogue typically contains
a)Service Name, Type and description of the service
b)Geographies Supported, Supporting services and Support window
c)Business Unit/s supported
d)All of the above
ans: All of the above
What procedure an individual should follow in Wipro if there is a IT security breach? a) Raise a SIR b) Inform your manager and take an approval c) Inform IMG and take an approval d) None of the above
Ans: None of the above
According to managed services execution life cycle, IT Services Management in a nutshell comprises of:
a) Services Requirements and Service Execution
b) Service requirements and services planning
c) Service requirements , services resources, services planning , services execution
d) services resources, services planning , services execution
ANS – C) Service Requirements , services resources, services planning , services execution
Customization of transition readiness audit report (TaAR) and Solution Assurance (SA) acitvities happen in ————-according to wipro’s managed services execution lifecycle.
a) Transition closure phase
b) Secondry support phase
c) Transition initiation phase
d) None of the above
ANS- Transition initiation phase
The document that is used to identify IT service management processes that are in scope of program is ——— a) ITSM process scoping document b) Execution process document(EPD)
c) Services delivery description (SDD) d) None of the above ANS- None of the above
As per order work bench system(OWBS), a managed services engagement can be either large program , program or cluster with classification =—————-
a) IA
b) MA
c) MS
d) MI
ANS-MS
Quality audit helps identify need of training
a) True
b) False
ANS-true
Standard SLA library can be referred for operational definition of most common metrics
A)True
b)false
ANS-True
A managed services programme may deliver for multiple Sows
A) True
B) False
ANS- True
Which of the listed tasks are regarded as proactive?
a) Control of Known Errors
b) Reviewing incident and problem analysis reports to identify trends and preventing problems in one service being replicated in another
c) Identifying the root cause of incidents
d) All of the above
ANS : All of the above
Typically SoW along with which of the following should be considered as Program / Project Catalogue
a) Service Delivery Description (SDD)
b) Execution Process Document (EPD)
c) System Maintenance Technical document (SMTD)
d) None of the above
ANS: None of the above
________ trigger Root Cause Analysis (RCA
a) Customer complaints
b) Audit findings
c) SLA deviation
d) All of the above
ANS : a) Customer complaints
___________ project classification code in OWBS denotes application managed services project in steady state phase
a) IT
b) IA
c) MA
d) MI
ANS : c) MA
Overall transition gets broken down into different tracks for better management and efficient delivery. ____________ is one of the tracks of Transition
a) Delivery Track
b) Tools and Infrastructure Track
c) Transition Track
d) All of the above
ANS : b) Tools and Infrastructure Track
A platform to share the performance of Managed Services engagements and best practices with the delivery teams is a) Quality Improvement Council (QIC b) Program Reviews c) Management Review d) Service Delivery Review ANS : c) Management Review
________________ should be suitably identified, planned and executed throughout the Service Management life cycle a) Escalations b) Risks c) Service Improvements d) All of the above ANS : d) All of the above
Wipro, typically, owns / assumes total accountability of tickets (as contractually agreed) in __________________ phase
a) Knowledge Acquisition
b) Secondary Support
c) Primary Support
d) None of the above
ANS : c) Primary Support
In context to Managed services SDD is an exhaustive list of _____
a) Towers
b) Technology functions
c) Verticals
d) None of the above
ANS : b) Technology functions
A contract between an IT service provider and an external vendor is
a) Operational Level Agreement (OLA
b) Underpinning Contract (UC
c) Service Level Agreement (SLA
d) None of the above
ANS : b) Underpinning Contract (UC
Inputs to Service Management Plan document are a) SoW, Transition Sign off, Delivery Sign off, ITIL defined metrics b) ITIL process areas, ITIL metrics, Non-transactional Project Plan d) SoW, EPD, SMTD, ITSM Process Scoping c) None of the above ANS : d) SoW, EPD, SMTD, ITSM Process Scoping
Various sub phases of transition are
a) a) Pre Knowledge Acquisition b) Knowledge Acquisition c) Transition Planning d) Secondary Support e) Primary Support f) Transition Closure
b) a) Transition Planning b) Secondary Support c) KAP d) Primary Support d) Closure
c) a) Transition Initiation b) Transition Planning c) Knowledge Acquisition d) Secondary Support e) Primary Support f) Transition Closure
d) None of the above
ANS : c) a) Transition Initiation b) Transition Planning c) Knowledge Acquisition d) Secondary Support e) Primary Support f) Transition Closure
Ticket audit is an important activity to be carried out in __________ phase of managed services execution life cycle
a) Reverse Transition
b) Due Diligence
c) Steady State
d) None of the above
ANS : c) Steady State
___________ project classification code in OWBS denotes infrastructure managed services project in steady state phase
a) IT
b) IA
c) MA
d) MI
ANS : d) MI
The Service Delivery Manager decides the time and stakeholders to whom the CSAT survey is to be administered. S/he then administers the survey marking a copy to the MQ / SQA Manager a) True b) False ANS :
Due Diligence is typically conducted after submitting Request for Proposal (RFP)
a) True
b) False
ANS : True
Typically, a Non Disclosure Agreement is signed _________________ a) Before Due Diligence b) At the start of interaction c) During KAP d) During the sales ANS : d) During the sales
RACI stands for
a) Request, Agree, Calendar, Invitematrix
b) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed matrix
c) Responsible, Agree, Control, Inform matrix
d) Responsibility, Authority, Career, Integration matrix
ANS : b) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed matrix
____________is “responsible” for project kickoff meeting as per Wipro’s managed services execution lifecycle
a) Wipro
b) Customer
c) Incumbent Vendor
d) None of the above
ANS : c) Incumbent Vendor
___________ is important gating for the transition team to proceed with execution of transition
a) Delivery Handover
b) Transition Handover
c) Sales Handover
d) None of the above
ANS : c) Sales Handover
Few triggers for Service Improvements
a) Trend Analysis
b) Root Cause Analysis (RCA)
c) Audit Assessments
d) All of the above
ANS : d) All of the above
ODC Setup and Access are activities of _____________
a) Transition Initiation
b) Transition Planning
c) Knowledge Acquisition
d) None of the above
ANS : b) Transition Planning
_______________ could be one of the themes of Continual Service Improvement
a) First Call Resolution (FCR) Improvement
b) Productivity Improvement
c) Incident Reduction
d) All of the above
ANS : d) All of the above
Overall transition gets broken down into different tracks for better management and efficient delivery. ____________ is one of the tracks of Transition
a) Delivery Track
b) Tools and Infrastructure Track
c) Transition Track
d) All of the above
ANS : b) Tools and Infrastructure Track
As per Wipro’s managed services execution lifecycle, Governance, Review and Escalation Mechanism are decided in _________________
a) Transition Initiation Phase
b) Transition Closure Phase
c) Primary Support Phase
d) Transition Planning Phase
ANS : d) Transition Planning Phase
As per Wipro’s managed services execution lifecycle, Sign off of final System Maintenance Technical Document (SMTD) with customer typically happens in _____________
a) Transition Initiation Phase
b) Transition Closure Phase
c) Knowledge Acquisition Phase (KAP)
d) None of the above
ANS: b) Transition Closure Phase
A _________________ should be maintained, monitored, tracked and its summary be part of Service Reporting.
a) ITSM Process Scoping
b) Service Management Plan
c) Service Improvement Plan
d) None of the above
ANS: c) Service Improvement Plan
Execution Process Document should be reviewed by Transition SQA (MQ Manager) / Process Manager
a) True
b) False
ANS : b) False
Request for Proposal (RFP) or Request for Information (RFI) is a input criteria for Pre- Engagement
a) True
b) False
ANS : True
FCR Improvement is considered one of the Service Improvement Themes
a) True
b) False
ANS : a) True
Service Management Planning is initiated during __________phase of Transition
a) Planning
b) Knowledge Acquisition
c) Primary Support
d) Secondary Support
ANS : b) Knowledge Acquisition
Boot Camp is part of _______________ sub phase of Transition.
a) Transition Initiation
b) Transition Planning
c) Knowledge Acquisition
d) None of the above
ANS : a) Transition Initiation
One of the outputs of Due Diligence Phase is ___________
a) Service Catalogue
b) System Maintenance Technical Document (SMTD)
c) Service Level Report
d) Gap plug out
ANS : d) Gap plug out
_________________ describes the technical activities to be carried out for the engagement
a) Execution Process Document
b) Service Description Document
c) ITSM Process Scoping document
d) None of the above
ANS : b) Service Description Document
According to managed services execution life cycle, termination of contract / SoW typically happens in
a) Due Diligence
b) Reverse Transition
c) Transition
d) None of the above
ANS : b) Reverse Transition
The document that captures detailed process workflow and related activities in scope is ______________ a) ITSM Process scoping document b) Execution Process Document (EPD) c) Service Delivery Description (SDD d) All of the above ANS : d) All of the above
In a Managed Services engagement, who is the owner of the Program level review? a) Service Delivery Manager b) Technical Manager c) Project Manager d) Service Delivery Head ANS : d) Service Delivery Head
According to managed services execution lifecycle, Play back session is an activity of _______________
a) Secondary Support Phase
b) Primary Support Phase
c) Knowledge Acquisition Phase (KAP
d) None of the above
ANS : c) Knowledge Acquisition Phase (KAP
_____________ triggers a contract change request
a) Change in scope of geographic location
b) Removal / Revision in Service level target
c) Line of Business (LOB)
d) All of the above
ANS : d) All of the above
A Managed Services engagement may consist of multiple projects in one single delivery
a) True
b) False
ANS : a) True
Removal of an existing line of Business (LOB) is considered change in scope of the engagement
a) True
b) False
ANS : a) True
Operational Level Agreement (OLA) is a contract between an IT service provider and a third party
a) True
b) False
A Managed Services Program or Cluster can have classification “MA or MI or “IA or IT” per Order Work Bench System (OWBS
a) True
b) False
ANS : b) False
